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good question
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AntonioLao
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good question - 01-11-2006, 11:51 AM

Quote:
Originally Posted by GUILLE
Doesn't the triangular inequiality impply that the f1 and f2 come form different wavelengths because |f1+f2|=|f1|+|f2| is impplied if both frequencies come from the same origin?
Good question. But I don't have a direct answer at this time. All I know is that the product of frequency and wavelength is a constant, the speed of light.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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