| mimee,
I can now tell you two things.
First, that this paradox has, atleast, and I think, 3 true correct answers: a mathematical one, a physical one, and a philosophical one. Infinite is such a complex and abstract theme that it has to be studied in several manners.
The mathematical answer is YES. Although there has been an "infinites legth cladsification" that you can check in some web pages, and states whcih infinitesare "bigger" and "smaller", still all the infinites are equal in "legth". I write these three words in brakets because when talking about infinity, there is no size, it is just absolute continuity. But all of us, I think, now, that mathematicians are abstract and eccentric people, and they like to reflect this in their works and developmnents, and, thus, they decided to state that infinite years is equal to infinite days, infinite cows, infinite primes, infinite energy or even infinite cash.
The physical answer is NO. Of course, in mathematical physics, maybe the answer is yes, but, still, in mathematical physics, the infinites are still not dominated. Not only physically it is said that infinite years is not equal to ifninite days, but also more important: infinite is not physically possible. I like giving the example of a company that is managed and owned by the most greedy man on earth. He is so greedy, that he goes out of nature, becoming infintelly greedy. This infinitelly greedy man wanted to be infinitelly rich, so he stated one year that his apple company should produce infinite apples. That year, everybody on earth worked for the company, 6.5 billion people, the whole territory of earth was used to plant apple trees. Now, do you think that the company managed to produce infinite apples? NO. Pretty clearlly. First, the life of the people is finite, second, the space on earth, and evenof the universe, is finite, third, the time used (a year), is finite...And many others.
The philosophical answer is, as it can be expected from the undecided people that philosophers ussually are, YES AND NO. YES, they are equal, because infinite, according to some, is always infinite, has the same concept representation, so infinite whatever is always infinite. Other ssayd that each infinite is different and differs according to the "whatever" part of the phrase. If a year is more that a day, then, ifninite years is more than infinite days.
I hope this paragraphs help you in you research. By the way, what is this project for? Is it a college study?
Now, the second thing that I can tell you, is that if you are going to try to get a final answer to your questions and to the paradox, agreed between several members, you are lookin gin the wrong place, because each person has a theory here, and applies it to all the posts.  |