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real Feynman rule
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AntonioLao
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real Feynman rule - 02-13-2008, 12:12 PM

In certain sense, the success of QED depended on the logical validity of an imaginary Feynman rule as a way of avoiding the singular complex infinity located on one of the poles of a given Riemann complex sphere. It is also reasonable to suggest the same is true for the method of renormalization in eliminating various addends of infinity for a direct approach to convergence of infinite power series approximations.

Since the coupling constant of QED is a small dimensionless number less than unity approximately 1/137, all is well and good. The process of renormalization works beautifully! However, in QCD, the coupling constant is exactly unity. Although QCD became renormalized by the concept of asymptotic freedom, it is not clearly understood why it works? To simply say that the strong color force gets weaker as the quarks get closer to each other is tantamount to accepting a decreasing effectiveness of gluons. So, why need them in the first place? This reversal of scaling also put the question why should a scalar Higgs boson exist? All these became more questionable where and when complicated by accepting the existence of zero metric spinors and imaginary quantum vectors.

For an alternative approach, it is reasonable to suggest that zero quantum vectors cannot exist but quantum vectors of unit Planck length do. By a principle of proximity for these vectors where and when two of these are exactly directed toward each other they appear as a zero vector and approaching a pure scalar by losing some of their directional properties. Since directional properties are conserved, no quantum vectors can completely lose all eight directional invariance properties. At most, seven can be lost. This last singular stronghold becomes a description of real Feynman rule.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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