[N0B0DY]

I had a convo with Lloyd way back when about this, and we put it into particulate terms if I remember right. Would it be fair to infer that .999... can be representative of 1 composite particle consisting of an infinite number of point particles; and 1 representative of a 1 point particle? This way both would equal 1, but of a different type: the composite, infinite; and the point, absolute.

I've always considered there to be an extremely fine line between infinite and absolute, and for this reason I feel there will always remain debateable points as to whether or not the larger is larger than the largest. It might be the cause for the quantum fluctuation in there somewhere.

"To show this consider r<s. Then r<(r+s)/2<s."

If r is 1 and s is 2, the result is 3/2, but I don't see how that implies 4/2. The infinite set taken as one set I understand though.

Special thanks to you, Neutralino, for your help before.