Yes, it does. Actually the 1 in the set of natural numbers was replaced by the 0 of the set of whole numbers. I called it the set of wholly natural numbers without 1. What Cantor was implying was that the set of real irrational numbers is multi-infinity larger than the set of real rational numbers. Yet the irrationals are found in between the rationals. This is what made him insane. That is the question how could infinity of infinity be found within 0 and 1?Originally Posted by Mohan.C


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