When does a force become zero? Is this the same as a balance of two equal but opposite forces?
When does a force become zero? Is this the same as a balance of two equal but opposite forces?
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
I think no, it's not the same zero force than equal oppiste forces. I think force is not like energy. if you have gravitational force x and anti-gravitational force y, that are equal, then although you'r final force is zero, there is really force. Not like energy: if there is x energy of staticity and y energy of dynamic (kinetic) that are equal, then your energy is zero. Becuase energy is ability to do work. Whiles force is simply push and/or pull, and this does exist nevertheles it can't be detected by events, unlike energy (for if you can't do something, you don't have whatt makes you do something).
Zero force therefore is simply the absence of force. And this can only happen in vacuum.
Millikan used the balance of electric and magnetic force and gravity to measure the unit of electric charge.Originally Posted by GUILLE
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
Could we simliarly measure the Strong Force Charge by the balance of the Electric and Magnetic force and the weak force (quantum chromodynamics?)Originally Posted by AntonioLao
No. These forces have different coupling constants, which are related to their scale (distances) of effectiveness.Originally Posted by GUILLE
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
Electric, magnetic and weak force are not same scale, but electric, magnetic and gravity yes, they are same scale?Originally Posted by AntonioLao
EM and gravity have the same effectiveness both are long range forces that correspond to the inverse square law of force. However, the electromagnetic interaction that binds an electron and a proton in a hydrogen atom is the inconceivably large number of 10^{41} times stronger than gravity.Originally Posted by GUILLE
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
There are three factors I want to mention, which I believe are the clue to solve this and to find the connection between EM an gravity:Originally Posted by AntonioLao
1. The spacetime particles: how they are, their porperties, their interaction with or when there are gravitons or photons...
2. The premitivity and permeability, both values definatelly have a relationship.
3. The coupling constants.
which of these three is more fundamentally more important? I think it's the quanta of spacetime. Permittivity and permeability are classical macroscopic concepts which do not have any quantum analogies. The couplings only relate to the forces. If there is only one force then all the coupling constants are not necessary for a theory.
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
I agree the spacetime quanta is the most fundamental concern in developing a GUTOE and understand the forces, energy, and the universe.Originally Posted by AntonioLao
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