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zero origin of force
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zero origin of force - 12-22-2005, 01:29 PM

When does a force become zero? Is this the same as a balance of two equal but opposite forces?


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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12-22-2005, 04:28 PM

I think no, it's not the same zero force than equal oppiste forces. I think force is not like energy. if you have gravitational force x and anti-gravitational force y, that are equal, then although you'r final force is zero, there is really force. Not like energy: if there is x energy of staticity and y energy of dynamic (kinetic) that are equal, then your energy is zero. Becuase energy is ability to do work. Whiles force is simply push and/or pull, and this does exist nevertheles it can't be detected by events, unlike energy (for if you can't do something, you don't have whatt makes you do something).


Zero force therefore is simply the absence of force. And this can only happen in vacuum.
  
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12-22-2005, 07:24 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by GUILLE
I think no, it's not the same zero force than equal oppiste forces.
Millikan used the balance of electric and magnetic force and gravity to measure the unit of electric charge.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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12-28-2005, 06:17 AM

Quote:
Originally Posted by AntonioLao
Millikan used the balance of electric and magnetic force and gravity to measure the unit of electric charge.
Could we simliarly measure the Strong Force Charge by the balance of the Electric and Magnetic force and the weak force (quantum chromodynamics?)
  
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not possible at the same scale
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not possible at the same scale - 12-28-2005, 12:12 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by GUILLE
Could we simliarly measure the Strong Force Charge by the balance
No. These forces have different coupling constants, which are related to their scale (distances) of effectiveness.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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12-28-2005, 03:27 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by AntonioLao
No. These forces have different coupling constants, which are related to their scale (distances) of effectiveness.
Electric, magnetic and weak force are not same scale, but electric, magnetic and gravity yes, they are same scale?
  
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same effectiveness
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same effectiveness - 12-29-2005, 01:15 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by GUILLE
but electric, magnetic and gravity yes, they are same scale?
EM and gravity have the same effectiveness both are long range forces that correspond to the inverse square law of force. However, the electromagnetic interaction that binds an electron and a proton in a hydrogen atom is the inconceivably large number of 10^{41} times stronger than gravity.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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12-29-2005, 01:34 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by AntonioLao
EM and gravity have the same effectiveness both are long range forces that correspond to the inverse square law of force. However, the electromagnetic interaction that binds an electron and a proton in a hydrogen atom is the inconceivably large number of 10^{41} times stronger than gravity.
There are three factors I want to mention, which I believe are the clue to solve this and to find the connection between EM an gravity:
1. The spacetime particles: how they are, their porperties, their interaction with or when there are gravitons or photons...
2. The premitivity and permeability, both values definatelly have a relationship.
3. The coupling constants.
  
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which is more important?
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which is more important? - 12-29-2005, 01:50 PM

which of these three is more fundamentally more important? I think it's the quanta of spacetime. Permittivity and permeability are classical macroscopic concepts which do not have any quantum analogies. The couplings only relate to the forces. If there is only one force then all the coupling constants are not necessary for a theory.


Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: a(tr(t)=c²
  
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12-29-2005, 01:59 PM

Quote:
Originally Posted by AntonioLao
which of these three is more fundamentally more important? I think it's the quanta of spacetime. Permittivity and permeability are classical macroscopic concepts which do not have any quantum analogies. The couplings only relate to the forces. If there is only one force then all the coupling constants are not necessary for a theory.
I agree the spacetime quanta is the most fundamental concern in developing a GUTOE and understand the forces, energy, and the universe.
  
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