[AntonioLao]

Dirac postulated the existence of magnetic monopoles in 1931. In spite of continued experimental researches, no monopole has been found. It is now believed that these failures are consequences of a lack of understanding of the underlying magnetic as well as electric topology. However, both can be described using the topology of two distinct magnetic helicities. They are used to describe the stability of stellar systems from their births to their death of billions of years. This stability implies that charged particles such as electrons and protons should contain both helicities within their sub-quantum structures.

[mkirkpatrick]

Originally Posted by AntonioLao Dirac postulated the existence of magnetic monopoles in 1931. In spite of continued experimental researches, no monopole has been found. It is now believed that these failures are consequences of a lack of understanding of the underlying magnetic as well as electric topology. However, both can be described using the topology of two distinct magnetic helicities. They are used to describe the stability of stellar systems from their births to their death of billions of years. This stability implies that charged particles such as electrons and protons should contain both helicities within their sub-quantum structures.

Why do you think he postulated the existence of magnetic monopoles,there must have been a suspicion in his mind that something was not quite right,and that there was a
disturbance in the ether unaccounted for.


regards michael.

[theunify]

he simply knew that his hypothesis was as right as anyone elses and therefore must be correct, or else everyone else was incorrect, thereby proving monopoles exist simply by proving everybody else was unsure.
My hypothesis perhaps is that positive, matter creating, monopoles exist
and negative, matter consuming, monopoles exist in the imaginary realm of the complex plane(s).

Originally Posted by mkirkpatrick Why do you think he postulated the existence of magnetic monopoles,there must have been a suspicion in his mind that something was not quite right,and that there was a disturbance in the ether unaccounted for. regards michael.

[AntonioLao]

Originally Posted by mkirkpatrick Why do you think he postulated the existence of magnetic monopoles

By second guessing Dirac's mentality at the time, maybe he just wanted to imitate the successful formulation of electricity and since electricity and magnetism are inseparable.