That nothing must be something but not empirically determined.Originally Posted by harmonygirl
That nothing must be something but not empirically determined.Originally Posted by harmonygirl
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
If nothing is something (however determined), there can logically be no beginning to creation of energy, matter and space-time, no?
The first is only interesting if it is the beginning of something. The first is not interesting if it is the only - Djanet Sears
Space-time quanta as squares of energy could never be destroyed or created. They can only be regrouped to form ordinary matter and energy.Originally Posted by harmonygirl
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
This thread's title is "who is who in math?"...
So I'm trying to make a post on this subject.
Can only for the moment stumble into the very often arguing between
math believers and non math believer seen so often in the news groups.
The eternal arguing on the one hand that the mathematician is the only
one to solve all problem in physics. And the opposite almost maniac belief
that the mathematician just is a great flop, in physics at least.
Think you heard all that before...
One can perhaps make a stand in this "war" by making a strainer issue:
Can the mathematician (the educated, skilful and the interested) make
an profound contribution to the issue of TOE?
Or has any mathematician done so?
LeoK
Ed Witten is supposed to have done that for the unification of 5 superstring theories.Originally Posted by LeoK
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
Nothing happens. P+1=P so either P and P+1 are both prime or both composite, depending on what your definition of this P is, the notion of primality is for this P, and non-primality, as well as the definition of whatever P+1 is if P = "infinity," which is, by the way, not a very well defined and ambiguous symbol at best.
For example, if P is the integer number 2 then it is prime and 2+1=3 is also prime.Originally Posted by phoenixthoth
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
I have now the proof that infinity is equal to imaginary unity as extension of special relativity. This could give a 3rd renormalization procedure.Originally Posted by phoenixthoth
Time independence: [∂E(g)]²=[∂F(a)×∂r(a)]·[∂F(b)×∂r(b)] and Mass independence: ¶a(t)·¶r(t)=c²
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