So, yeah... I'm dying to get some feedback from people who are educated in these fields already. Most of the people I know tend to zone out or get lost when I get a little carried away. So, here goes.
Unlike what seems to be the current "in" thing, I don't claim to have disproved Einstein, or found any great huge flaw in SR/GR. I find the theories work as a great starting point.
I have a different view about the current form of Quantum Theories.
The simplest way to explain this, is to refer to Bell's Inequality.
Currently the view is that you can't have SR's light speed limit AND the results of Bell's Inequality experiments, which clearly imply superluminal, if not instantaneous transmission of information between two entangled but separated particles.
This occurs to me as a perfect example, not of the mismatch between SR and QM, but of the improper consideration of time in QM.
So, let's go ahead and describe the typical Bell experiment.
Entangled pair, (a, b).
Each pair can have an observed state, lets just use + or - for this, and call it spin orientation. So now we have (a+, b+) or (a-, b-).
Two observers, Alice and Bob. We'll use (A, B).
Alice........Bob
\ ___ /
Splitter
^
(a,b)
The experiment has shown that if Alice observes (A, a+), Bob will observe (B, b+), even if there hasn't been time for information from a on it's state to reach b at the speed of light. Superluminal information transfer, a violation of Special Relativity. *cue hordes of "Einstein was wrrrooonnnngggg!" groupies*
How to resolve this... hmmm....
What if the (a,b) pair doesn't have the proposed non-local interaction implied from probabilistic quantum models?
Is there any way to produce those results without exchanging information across a spacelike interval?
My, that is an intractable problem isn't it.
Oh! I know, what if the particles represented by the (a,b) pair didn't interact with time the same way that we do?
Wait, everyone insists time doesn't matter... but still, let's investigate that idea.
Perhaps (a,b) are interacting with time differently, what would that mean?
How could that possibly explain the results given by this proven experiment?
Oh! I know a different way to interact with time, time dilation! When you move rapidly, or produce a strong gravitational field, you interact with time at a reduced rate, right?
What if you continued that line of thought, what if the rate at which we observe time in relatively flat space ISN'T the maximum rate you can interact with time at?
Perhaps (a,b) interact with the entire time interval over which this experiment is performed. What would that look like?
Alice........Bob
\ ___ /
Splitter
^
(a,b)
For the start of the experiment, then replace Alice with what she observes.
(A, a+)........Bob
\ ___ /
Splitter
^
(a,b)
Now the (a) particle had it's orientation changed in what we observed as a temporally separated interval, but which to it was not out of the time which it interacts with. So it's past state to us, is influenced by it's observed present state.
(A, a+)........Bob
\ ___ /
Splitter
^
(a+,b)
If the (a,b) pair is entangled, then the (b) would have changed as well, and Bob observes this.
(A, a+)........(B, b+)
\ ___ /
Splitter
^
(a+,b+)
No actual information would have crossed the spacelike interval between Alice and Bob. The state of the particles in the past simply depended on the observed state in the future.
That almost seems too simple though, you would need to explain why the (a,b) particles interact with time like that, wouldn't you.
Well, looking at time dilation, what can we infer from that?
Bodies with great velocity/mass interact with time at an ever reducing rate...
Hmmm, perhaps I shouldn't have spoken so soon about the Einstein thing, because he chose the constant for the rate of time in his equations for gravitational red shift to equal 1 at infinite distance from the gravitational body. Implying that zero mass would experience roughly what we experience in locally flat spacetime.
I can forgive him that though, he probably sought to preserve causality more strictly than I do.
If you were to move that Rate of Time = 1 point, where would you put it?
That is a tricky question, but just for argument, let's try the Planck Mass, since it's roughly the point where Relativistic Gravity models break down.
So for masses/equivalent velocities above that point, you would observe time dilation.
On the other hand, below that point, you would observe increasing interaction with time.
We saw above that increased interaction with time would look odd, particles changing their own pasts, future unobserved states influencing present states... why, it would make it nearly impossible to say with certainty where anything below a certain energy level was!
Like some sort of uncertainty principle! Where have I heard that term before?
Ok ok, I know where it came from, but what am I saying here? That some sort of continuation of the observed relativistic time dilation, reversed below a certain mass, and providing increased interaction with time... could describe everything we currently know to be the realm of Quantum Theory?
Of course not, that's crazy talk... isn't it?


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